ויתן ה׳ אלוקינו בידנו, G'd delivered into our hands, etc. This verse is best explained by reference to Berachot 54 describing Og as uprooting a mountain of 12 kilometers (equal to the size of the encampment of the Jewish people) and trying to throw it onto the camp of the Israelites. G'd frustrated this plan. Thereupon Moses, who was ten cubits tall, took an axe ten cubits long and threw it at Og, hitting his ankles and killing him. The words ויתן ה׳ refer to G'd making the mountain Og had uprooted drop on his own neck, whereas the word בידנו refers to Moses personally having killed Og using his own hands. Although Moses used only a single hand, the Torah describes his acts by referring to "hands," using the plural ending, much as G'd has been described in Genesis 1,26 as in the plural when He was about to create Adam and said: "let us make a human being, etc." Moses' hand was considered as equivalent to the combined hands of all the Jewish people.

ההוא יקרא ארץ רפאים, "this is what is known as the land of the Rephaim." I have explained earlier that the meaning of the word is that this land though referred to as "land of the Rephaim" was not the land of the Rephaim in the true sense of the word, i.e. the land promised by G'd to Abraham as the land of the Rephaim. If you were not to understand the verse in this manner and the lands of Sichon and Og would have to be considered as the true lands of the Rephaim, then the Baraitha in the Sifri where we were told that the words "which the Lord your G'd is about to give to you" mean that the lands on the East Bank of the Jordan which you have taken for yourself" are excluded, would be incompatible with what is written here. When you add to this the fact that we have been told in Bereshit Rabbah 44, that the Rephaim were identical with the tribe known as Chivi, and we find that the Chivi is one of the seven tribes the Israelites were to dispossess on the West Bank (compare Exodus 3,17) surely it is impossible to consider the lands occupied by Og as the lands known as "the lands of the Rephaim."

You may reply that we also find that the Emorite was mentioned among the seven tribes which G'd would dispossess when the Israelites left Egypt, and this included Sichon as we know from Numbers 21,21 where Sichon was described as the "king of the Emorites." Moreover, the Torah continued in verse 25 of that chapter to describe the Israelites as settling in the towns formerly belonging to the "Emorites." In view of this the question against the Sifri appears to have been resurrected! This is no problem at all. The cities of the Emorite listed in Numbers as having belonged to Sichon are not what G'd had promised to Abraham. In fact the Torah had been at pains in Numbers 21,26 to describe even Cheshbon, the capital of Sichon, as a city which had a chequered past; it had once belonged to the Moabites, and had subsequently been conquered by Sichon from the first king of the Moabites. In other words, the Torah offers clear proof that the land over which Sichon ruled at the time was actually Moabite land. The only reason it was called "Emorite" was because king Sichon who belonged to the tribe of the Emorites had acquired it by force. It had never been part of the original lands of the tribe of the Emorites. As a result, it could not have been included in the lands of the Emorite promised by G'd to Abraham.

Furthermore, all the lands mentioned in the Torah as belonging to the Rephaim are included in what G'd had promised to Abraham when He said "ואת הרפאים" in Genesis 15,20. The lands of Sichon and Og were also included in that promise for the Torah refers to them as "the land of the Emorite and the land of Og." It is also called the land of the Rephaim as the Rephaim were identical with the Chivi. When the Baraitha quoted in the Sifri (reference Deut. 7,13) stated that the lands of the East Bank were not included in what G'd had promised to Abraham, this statement referred to the settlement of that part of the East Bank by the Israelites. Although G'd had given, i.e. promised, the lands of seven Canaanite tribes to the Israelites who participated in the Exodus, this did not mean that all these lands were of equal status, and that all of them qualified for the Israelites to dwell therein. This situation is no different from the situation on the West Bank itself. We know from the Talmud (Keylim 1,6) that there were 10 different degrees of sanctity in the various locations on the West Bank. We need to perceive the lands of Sichon and Og as possessing a lower degree of sanctity than the lands promised to Abraham on the West Bank of the Jordan. G'd wanted the Israelites to loot the belongings of these kings but He had not planned for the Israelites to dwell in their lands.

This is what the Sifri had in mind when its author wrote: "excluding the lands on the East Bank." The Torah in that instance had been careful to write "which the Lord our G'd swore an oath to give to us" (Deut. 6,23). This meant that those lands G'd had sworn to give to us to dwell in. By that wording the Torah meant to exclude other lands which, though promised to us by G'd, were not promised for us to dwell in because these lands did not qualify for the requisite degree of sanctity [necessary for the Israelites to develop their personalities in keeping with Torah imperatives. Ed.]. You will find something similar in the case of Ammon, Moav, and Edom, who are identical respectively with the tribes Keyni, Kenizi, and Kadmoni in G'd's promise to Abraham in Genesis chapter 15. Jeremiah 49,17 foretells of the desolation of the land of Edom. If so, the promise of that land to the Israelites could not have been meant for them to dwell in it. The same fate had been intended for the lands of Sichon and Og. Only the West Bank of the Jordan contained the lands G'd had intended to give to the descendants of the Patriarchs to dwell in. Nonetheless, despite the fact that those lands were not included in the promise to Abraham, the fact that the Israelites conquered them at the command of G'd and that some tribes settled there conferred a certain degree of sanctity on the soil of those lands.

ואת יהושוע צויתי, "And I commanded Joshua, etc." Moses meant that he commanded Joshua not to be afraid of these nations, as we find at the end of verse 22: לא תיראום "you must not be afraid of them." Moses did not repeat the words "your eyes are seeing" at the end of verse 22, as this is not something which forms the subject of a command.

The reason Moses preferred to record these instructions here instead of after the conquest of the lands of Sichon and Og and the settlement of the tribes of Reuven and Gad in those lands, is because the conditions which were attached to the settlement of these lands by these tribes, etc. This could have created the impression that Joshua required the assistance of the heroic men of those tribes before he would undertake the mission of conquering the land of Canaan. Seeing that it was G'd who would conduct the actual battles, Moses did not want a false impression to be created. He introduced the paragraph with the words ואת יהושוע, "and Joshua," to hint that Joshua's part was incidental, as suggested by the conjunctive letter ו. This is also why Moses concluded this paragraph with the words "for your G'd will fight on your behalf." Moses underlined the word הוא, "He Himself," to make it even less plausible for someone who had heard that the men of the tribes of Gad and Reuven had to cross the Jordan in full armour to conclude that this was an indication that the wars of conquest would be dangerous. I have already explained the purpose of that command in my commentary on Parshat Mattot. You may also wish to read my comments on the words את כל.

בעת ההיא לאמור, "at that time saying, etc." The time referred to is the time when Moses imposed his conditions on the tribes of Reuven and Gad. The word לאמור in this context may mean that Moses did not tell Joshua all this verbatim, but he told him words to this effect. I have shown that there are other instances when the word לאמור is employed in a similar fashion. It is also possible that the meaning is for Joshua to relay such a command to the Israelites at the time they would ready themselves to battle the seven Canaanite tribes, in order to remove fear from their hearts.

את כל אשר עשה, "all that He has done, etc." This statement incorporates the reason Moses insisted that the tribes of Reuven and Gad cross the river Jordan armed, ready to join the other tribes in the conquest of the West Bank. Moses says that G'd will do to the tribes on the West Bank what He had done to the Emorite Kings Sichon and Og. Just as G'd's help against those kings had been predicated on all of the tribes having readied themselves to do battle, so in order for G'd to do battle on behalf of the Israelites against the 31 kings on the West Bank, all the tribes had to be present in battle formation. In both instances it was G'd who did the actual fighting. In view of the above Moses was not able to say to Joshua "your own eyes have observed what G'd did to these two kings, etc." until after the two tribes had been commanded to cross the Jordan, etc. The collective merit of 12 tribes of Israel cannot be compared to the collective merit of 10 tribes. If G'd had been willing to fight on behalf of 12 tribes this was not proof that He would do the same on behalf of only 10 tribes. I have already explained this on Numbers 32,6.

לא תיראום, "do not fear them!" Moses used the plural ending here even though he spoke only to Joshua as he meant to include the whole people in his instruction not to be afraid of the kings of the Canaanites seeing that G'd was going to do the fighting. As far as my comments on the word לאמור are concerned, Moses said that word in order for Joshua to tell the Israelites to have faith in the Lord.

ואתחנן אל ה׳ בעת ההיא לאמור, "I pleaded with G'd at that time, saying, etc." Why did Moses have to say "at that time?" Sifri writes that when Moses saw how Sichon and Og had fallen, he believed that the fact that he had lived to see this was proof that G'd had relented in His decree against him and that this was an opportune time to plead to be allowed to enter the West Bank. If we accept this interpretation the words בעת ההיא refer to the time of the wars with Sichon and Og. Moses excused himself saying that had it not been for what he had been allowed to witness at that time he would not have pleaded for G'd to rescind His decision seeing he was aware that the decree was final.

According to the sages in the Sifri even the word לאמור is part of Moses' plea. Moses challenged G'd to tell him if He was prepared to let him enter the Holy Land. I believe that all these comments are merely homiletics. The words בעת ההיא refer to the time when G'd had sworn that except for Joshua and Calev no one who had been over 20 at the time of the Exodus would see the land of Israel. Moses had referred to that date in 1,37 when he had mentioned that G'd had been angry at him also, saying that he too would not get to the Holy Land. At that time Moses had pleaded to cancel His decree and to release Himself from the oath as alluded to by the words: "You have begun to show your servant Your greatness, etc." Our sages interpreted these words as a reference to an invalidation of an oath, as I shall discuss shortly. The reason Moses inserted this paragraph at this point was so that the people should not suspect him of having pleaded only on his own behalf and that he was not concerned with G'd cancelling the decree He had sworn concerning the entire generation. By saying בעת ההיא, Moses indicated that he prayed before the decree had begun to be executed.

Even though we do not find in Moses' opening words that he prayed also on behalf of his people, his intention had been to pray on behalf of the people as soon as G'd had hearkened to his own prayer concerning himself. This would be relatively simple as we have a principle that once part of a vow has been cancelled, the entire vow is no longer valid (Nedarim 66). The word לאמור in our verse indicates that Moses was concerned not only with himself but also with additional words he was going to say. He thought he acted wisely as he assumed that it would be easier to obtain a cancellation of the part of the decree which referred to him personally not entering the Holy Land. After all, he, personally, had not committed a sin involving lack of faith as had his peers. All of Moses' words demonstrate that he considered G'd as having acted righteously.

Moses' entreaty also demonstrated four conditions which are necessary in order for one's prayer to be accepted. 1) One needs to pray in a manner similar to a poor man who knocks on a door in order to obtain some alms or some food as a hand-out, as we have been taught in Proverbs 18,23: "the poor man speaks beseechingly." 2) The prayer must be addressed to the source of Mercy, i.e. G'd Himself in His capacity as the attribute of Mercy. 3) It must be offered at a time when prayers are accepted, as we know from Psalms 69,14: "May my prayer to you come at a favourable moment, etc." 4) The prayer must be specific, incapable of being interpreted wrongly. This point is illustrated by Esther Rabbah at the beginning of chapter 7 item 24. [The Midrash discusses the meaning of the words in Esther 3,14: "that the people should be ready for this date," without specifying what precisely they should expect to happen on that day. The point is made that predictions made by Gentile prophets are obscure, liable to be misunderstood, whereas predictions made by Jewish prophets are clear and unambiguous. Ed.] The example quoted concerns a Jewish traveller who tired of the long trek he had to walk and whose ankle gave out. He said: "I wish I had a donkey." Shortly thereafter a Roman whose ass had just given birth to a young donkey passed him and told him to take it and to carry it. The traveller acknowledged that his prayer had been heard but that he had not expressed his prayer appropriately. He had failed to specify for what purpose he had requested the donkey. Thus far the Midrash. The word ואתחנן is the appropriate terminology when one beseeches G'd. By using this word Moses had complied with the first of the four conditions needed for a successful prayer. When he added אל השם, he complied with the second condition, i.e. he addressed his prayer to the attribute of Mercy. When he said בעת ההיא, he indicated that he had waited for the appropriate moment to offer up his prayer, i.e. a moment when G'd was known to be in a favourable frame of mind. Who would know better when such a time occurred than Moses? Perhaps this had been at the moment when G'd had said החל רש, "begin to possess and inherit his land" (Deut. 2,31). This would be in line with the view of our sages who said that Moses offered this prayer after the Israelites had defeated Sichon and Og and conquered their lands. By having waited for the appropriate time Moses had complied with the third of the four conditions for successful prayer we have listed earlier. Moses complied with the fourth condition for successful prayer when he said לאמור, i.e. he was precise in the formulation of his prayer, making it impossible to misunderstand. I have pointed out repeatedly that the word לאמור is often used to indicate that whatever immediately precedes it does not necessarily describe the exact words being used. Some of our commentators such as the author of the Yalkut Shimoni hold that the words בעת ההיא, "at that time," refer to Numbers 20,12 when G'd had told Moses and Aaron: "you (both) will not bring this community to the land I have given to them." On the other hand, Midrash Rabbah claims that the time Moses offered this prayer was on the occasion of Numbers 27,18 when G'd had told Moses to appoint Joshua as his successor. It is possible that Moses prayed a similar prayer on each of the occasions mentioned.

א־דני אלוקים אתה החילות להראות, "O Lord G'd, You have begun to show, etc." This (א־ד־נ־י) form of address may be understood as similar to Samuel I 3,18 where the High Priest Eli after being told by his pupil Samuel that G'd said that He would exact retribution from the house of Eli, reacted by saying: "My Master (א־ד־נ־י) will do whatever seems good in His eyes." Eli meant that when a master loses a servant such a loss is keenly felt by him; as a result, The Master would not agree to lose the servant unless He had good reason. When Moses used the word א־ד־נ־י in this instance he meant to say that his own success and wellbeing was a matter for his master (G'd) to evaluate.

He also used the 4-lettered name of G'd with the vowels of the attribute of Justice, i.e. אלוקים. Rashi comments as follows: רחום בדין, (the word א־דני means) "the One who is merciful even while dispensing judgment." I have seen that Nachmanides criticises Rashi claiming that he overlooked the fact that the first word א־ד־נ־י is written with the letters א־ד, whereas the second name of G'd is spelled with the letter י־ה, and that our sages have said that whenever this combination of letters in the name of G'd occurs it refers to the attribute of Mercy. Thus far Nachmanides. [According to Rabbi Chavell, Nachmanides meant that only the combination of the letters י־ה describe the attribute of Mercy. Ed.] I believe that Rashi did not refer to the word א־ד־נ־י at all when he made his comment. Rather, he referred to the fact that although the vowels in the Ineffable Name Moses used here are the ones used for the attribute of Justice, i.e. elokim, the fact remains that even when G'd dispenses justice there is always an element of mercy present. This is the reason for the strange vowelling in this instance. Sifri also understands the word in this sense when the author commented: "הויה always means mercy, whereas אלוקים always means justice." Sifri clearly refers to the relative spelling (i.e. consonants) and reading (i.e. vowels) meaning different attributes.

The reason Moses employed a name for G'd which incorporates both attributes becomes clear when you refer to my explanation of the word לאמור at the end of the last verse. I explained that as soon as Moses' own prayer had been accepted he meant to pray on behalf of the whole generation. Moses felt that the degree against himself could be voided merely by an appeal to the attribute of Justice, whereas in order to void the decree against the people of the Exodus it required the application of G'd's attribute of Mercy. Tanchuma illustrated this with a parable. [the version of this parable in my edition of the Tanchuma is substantially different, but I am quoting the version the author describes. Ed.] A king who wanted to marry a certain lady dispatched messengers to examine the lady in question and to present her with his marriage proposal. The messengers went and came back with the report that they could not have found an uglier person than the lady in question. One of the patrons of the bride-to-be heard about this negative report and told the king that there was not a more beautiful lady in the whole kingdom than the one the king wanted to marry. The father of the bride told the King's messengers that on no account would he allow them to be present at the wedding as they had shamed the bride. When the patron who had sung the praises of the bride wanted to take part in the wedding celebrations the father would not allow him to enter either. The patron remonstrated saying to the father of the bride: "I have praised her although I have never met her, and I told the king that she is the fairest in the land." Moses used a similar argument when he pleaded with G'd. He considered it unfair that he who had been instrumental in promoting the wedding between Israel and G'd and the land of Israel should not be allowed to attend the wedding, the consummation of the deal. Moses' argument was that even if G'd applied the yardstick used by the attribute of Justice, he should be allowed to enter the Holy Land. This is the reason he mentioned the attribute of Justice. He alluded to the element of mercy by punctuating the Ineffable Name in this unusual manner as this related to his prayer for the people as a whole as I explained on the word לאמור. He made a point of using the name for the attribute of Justice as he has been quoted as only praying for himself. [The Torah does not record vowels, only consonants. The reader has to supply the vowels himself. Ed.] He used the indirect reference to the attribute of Mercy, as his prayer for the people as a whole remained potential rather than actual as long as his prayer on his own behalf had not been accepted.

It is also possible that Moses had to allude to the attribute of Mercy in G'd's name precisely because he demanded to be heard as a matter of justice rather than merely as a matter of mercy. Who is so righteous that he can demand to be judged by the pure attribute of Justice? We have it on the authority of Psalms 143,2 "for before You no creature is in the right."

אתה החלות, "You have begun, etc." The Sifri offers three possible meanings for the word החלות 1) The word is derived from התחלה, beginning. 2) It is an expression for prayer similar to Maleachi 1,9 ועתה חלו נא פני קל, "and now implore the favour of the Lord!" 3) it means to release, i.e. to release from a vow, etc. Moses said to G'd: "You have released me from my vow" when You said to me in Exodus 3,10 "take My people out of Egypt." At the time I told You that I had already sworn an oath to my father-in-law Yitro that I would not leave him as we know from Exodus 2,21: "Moses agreed to dwell with the man, etc." The word ויאל is used when one swears an oath. Moses argued that if G'd had seen fit to release him from that oath, He could release Himself from His own oath not to let him enter the Holy Land. Another meaning of the word is "opening." Moses said "You have provided an opening for me to implore You by prayer when You said to me in Deut. 9,32: 'let Me be so that I can destroy them, etc.' Did Moses then restrain G'd? The meaning is that G'd had opened a door for Moses by these words encouraging him to pray." We are therefore entitled to understand the word as meaning "prayer." Another explanation sees in the opening for prayer a reference to the time Moses granted the lands of Sichon and Og to the tribes of Reuven and Gad. He had provided an opening for possible cancellation of that vow. This latter explanation [that the word החלות means an opening to cancel a vow. Ed.] seems somewhat strange. What proof could Moses bring from the time G'd had released him from his vow to remain with Yitro? Moses' vow on that occasion had been easy to cancel as he had a ready answer saying that had he known at the time that G'd would call upon him to lead the Jewish people to freedom he would never have made such a vow. What possible opening was there for G'd to rescind His own oath seeing that when G'd swears an oath all future possibilities are known to Him and He could never plead insufficient knowledge of the future as a reason to cancel His vows!

This problem may be solved when we review what Maimonides wrote in chapter six of his treatise Hilchot Shevuot. He writes: "If someone swore an oath and did not regret it, and is intent on keeping his oath, the court has to examine if keeping his oath would prevent this person from fulfilling some positive commandment or from maintaining peaceful relations with his peers. If keeping the oath were to result in either of these results, the court has to engage in negotiations with that person until it convinces him that had he been fully aware of these consequences he would not have sworn the oath in question. After that they will release him from the obligation which the oath entails." This teaches us that even if no "opening" existed for the court to cancel the vow, one uses one's intelligence to create such an "opening." This is what Moses had in mind when he said: "You have provided an opening already when You prevailed upon me to be released from my vow though I had not expressed any desire to be released from it." The proof that Moses did not ask to be released from his vow is found in Exodus 3,10 where G'd commences a campaign of seven days trying to convince Moses to accept His mission. Moses now argued that G'd could apply this procedure to His own oath not to let him enter the Holy Land even if there had not been a prima facie opening for releasing Himself from His oath. Moses, after all, was desirous of fulfilling the positive commandment of living in the Holy Land, as evidenced by his words: "let me cross so that I can see the good land, etc."

Should you argue that the situation is totally dissimilar to the one discussed by Maimonides, and it was not G'd who would perform a commandment as a result of releasing Himself from His oath but Moses, the answer is that the reason Moses described himself as את עבדך, "with Your (G'd's) servant," was to hint that it was a well known fact that whatever belongs to the servant belongs to the Master, i.e. G'd would share equally in Moses' performing the commandment of living in the Holy Land.

אעברה נא, "please let me cross, etc." Why did Moses say נא? Besides, why did he say: "so that I will see?" Is seeing the land not a natural result of crossing the Jordan? Perhaps Moses wanted to rebut reasons which had prevented him from entering the Holy Land. Our sages say that there had been two such reasons. 1) The time for Joshua to reign had arrived, and the rule of one monarch must not overlap with the rule of a second monarch by as much as a hair's breadth (Berachot 48). 2) G'd foresaw that the Israelites would sin in the future and He would have to pour out His wrath at them. He therefore preferred to use the Holy Temple as the object on which to pour out His wrath rather than on the people themselves. We have dicussed this in connection with Psalms 79 where Assaph appears to write a hymn in honour of the destruction of the Holy Temple (my translation page 1766). We explained that if Moses had crossed the Jordan the Temple he would have built would have stood forever, and whenever the Israelites would sin G'd would have to vent His wrath on them rather than on the Temple. Compare my commentary on Deut. 1,37.

This is why Moses referred to these two scenarios with his words. Concerning the fact that the time of his reign must not overlap with the time assigned to Joshua, he said "let me cross," i.e. he did not ask to cross in his capacity as the leader but was content to cross as a simple citizen; he did not expect to be given any special honour. Concerning the eventuality of the Temple becoming the excuse for G'd venting His wrath on the people in any future sinfulness by the people, he said: ואראה, "in order that I may see the land," i.e. he had no aspirations to build the Temple. Moses was thus careful to forestall any argument against granting his wish. As to his using the expression נא, this means that he was ready to abdicate his position as king immediately.

It is also possible that Moses pleaded for the Israelites to cross the Jordan river immediately before the end of the day so that he could cross at a time when his crossing would not interfere with the period G'd had ordained for Joshua's reign. If you accept my interpretation that the words בעת ההיא referred to the time immediately after G'd decreed that the generation of the spies would not enter the Holy Land, there would not have been any problem with the time, as that event took place 38 years prior to the period when Moses addressed the people here. From Moses' words it is easy to surmise that he prayed on behalf of the whole people seeing that G'd had only decreed that they would die in the desert. He had not decreed that they would die prematurely, i.e. before reaching the age of 60 which would have meant that they died by the karet penalty. If Moses were to enter the Holy Land at that time (38 years ago) it would be understood that the people would enter with him as G'd had not decreed that they had to die prior to age 60.

There is another way of explaining Moses' choice of words based on Bamidbar Rabbah 19,13 that the redeemer for the people of the generation of the Exodus would be Moses himself. [The Midrash quotes G'd as saying that if the generation Moses had led out of Egypt would die in the desert whereas Moses would lead the younger generation into the Holy Land this would be construed as a sign that there was no hope for the present generation ever to enter the Holy Land. Ed.] There is suppport for this in a statement in the Zohar volume 2 page 120 that this is already alluded to in Kohelet 1,9: מה שהיה הוא שיהיה, "whatever has been, is what will be." Moses knew of this as G'd had revealed to him that it would be part of his role in the future to cross the river Jordan to the Holy Land. In view of this knowledge he merely begged to fulfil his role now instead of in the distant future. The words אעברה נא therefore mean: "let me cross now (we are speaking about 38 years ago)."

The words אעברה נא may also be part of Moses' answer to something we have learned in Midrash Rabbah that the reason that Moses had to die outside the boundaries of the Holy Land was to enable him to lead his generation to their hereafter, as we have already explained. Moses used the term אעברה, i.e. a temporay crossing rather than a permanent crossing of the Jordan indicating he was quite willing to die and be buried on the East Bank after having first crossed the Jordan, so as to be able to play his appointed role of helping the people of his generation to attain their share in the hereafter. [Our author is vague, speaking of עולם הבא; I believe he may have referred to the time of the resurrection. Ed.]

Yet another meaning of the term אעברה may be connected to the statement in Ketuvot 111 that any person who has had the good fortune to walk four cubits inside of ארץ ישראל has thereby assured himself of a share in the hereafter. Moses wanted to assure himself of that by crossing the Jordan even temporarily.

אשר בעבו הירדן, "which is on the far side of the Jordan, etc." Although at first glance these words appear totally superfluous, Moses had to spell this out as there is a good land in the celestial regions known as the "good land," a land which David referred to in Psalms 116,9 as "the land of life" when he asked G'd to let him walk therein. Moses also had to spell out the words: "this good mountain, the Lebanon" in accordance with what we learned in Sotah 14 where the Talmud says that Moses referred to his desire to perform the commandments which can be performed only inside the boundaries of ארץ ישראל. This is why he enumerated the various locations where it would be possible for him to perform these various commandments he had in mind.

In addition he was astute enough to word his request in such a way that G'd would not be able to say to him that he could accomplish all that he had spoken of by merely looking at the land, albeit with an enhanced power of vision. What he wanted to accomplish in the places he had named he could not accomplish merely with his eyes.

ויתעבר ה׳ בי למענכם, "But G'd became angry with me because of you, etc." Moses repeated himself by first citing G'd as becoming angry with him and then saying G'd would not listen to him. He interrupted himself by adding the words "on your account;" we would have expected him to say: "G'd became angry at me and would not listen to me." Besides, seeing Moses had already said in 1,37 that "G'd became angry at me on your account," we must try and understand what he meant to add here. I have explained earlier that the words "on your account" in 1,37 were an allusion to Moses' intention to offer a prayer on behalf of the whole people בעת ההיא, at that time, in addition to the plea he made on his own behalf. At this point Moses said ויתעבר ה׳ בי למענכם, meaning that as far as the prayer on Israel's behalf was concerned G'd remained angry; as far as the prayer on his own behalf was concerned, G'd did not listen to him. He did not use the term עברה, "anger," concerning G'd's reaction to the prayer on his own behalf as what he had asked for himself was not based on G'd having been angry at him for something he had done.

Another meaning of this verse could be as follows: "G'd was angry at me, i.e. insisting that I die before crossing the Jordan, למענכם, "for your sake," i.e. so that I will eventually become your redeemer. We have to understand the word ויתעבר in the sense that the prophet Tzefaniah used it in Tzefaniah 1,15 where the יום עברה is a reference to the day on which the people who are the victim of this "anger" will die. When Moses added: "G'd did not listen to me," he meant that G'd was not willing for him to cross the Jordan even temporarily, even on condition that he would return to the East Bank and be buried there.

ויאמר ה׳ אלי רב לך, אל תוסף, G'd said to me: "enough for you, do not continue, etc." Why did G'd say to Moses both: "enough for you, and "do not continue, etc.?" G'd answered both parts of Moses' request. Concerning the part of Moses' prayer in which he asked to personally be allowed to cross the Jordan, G'd said: רב לך, "enough for you." G'd meant that He did not accept that Moses only wanted to cross the Jordan in order to fulfil certain commandments there. Moses had already fulfilled so many commandments that he did not need the additional merit which would accrue to him from fulfilling מצות התלויות בארץ, the kind of commandments which require one to be in the land of Israel in order to fulfil them. G'd would give him such a great reward that he would not miss out on anything by not having attained this particular merit. Concerning the prayer Moses offered on behalf of the people, G'd silenced him by saying that he should not continue to harp on that subject.

Alternatively, G'd implied that all the people who would fulfil the commandments which could only be fulfilled in the land of Israel would share the merit they acquired with Moses because he had been the one who had instructed them to observe these commandments. This is the mystical dimension of the words רב לך, "it was due to you their teacher that they will attain the merit which accrues from fulfilling all these commandments." G'd implied: "seeing that you have a share in all the מצות performed by your pupils, there is no need for you to belabour the subject, i.e. אל תוסף דבר, you will also have a share in those מצות."

The words רב לך may also be G'd's answer to Moses' offer to immediately resign his position so as not to conflict with the period during which Joshua was to reign. G'd answered that Moses could not do this as the position allocated to him was a lifetime position. He had to remain king as long as he was alive. Crossing the Jordan as a private citizen was out of the question. He could not transfer his status to Joshua during his lifetime. The words אל תוסף דבר are essential then.

Furthermore, it is possible to understand the words רב לך as applying to the subject at hand, whereas the words אל תוסף דבר belong to the next subject, i.e. עלה ראש הפסגה, "ascend the top of the hill, etc." Seeing that G'd had accepted half of Moses' prayer, i.e. to let him see the land, He told him not to speak about it anymore but to go to the top of the summit from where he would be able to see the land in all its details. G'd was afraid that Moses would persist that He should also grant the other half of his prayer. The very fact that G'd had granted part of his prayer might encourage Moses to persist. This is why He had to tell him to ascend instead of continuing to plead. The words בדבר הזה mean that this subject is closed. G'd reinforced this by saying: "for you will not cross this Jordan."

וראה בעיניך, "and behold it with your eyes." The word בעיניך is necessary especially after G'd had told Moses שא עיניך "raise up your eyes!" G'd meant to tell Moses that whatever he had hoped to accomplish by walking in the land, He, G'd would enable him to accomplish by means of his eyes alone. There was no need for him to traverse the land in order to become familiar with it.

Moreover, we know that there are techniques by means of which distant objects can be brought closer to one's eyes, such as telescopes and binoculars. G'd told Moses that he would see the Holy Land with his very own physical eyes, and not through a median of any sort.

וצו את יהושע, "and command Joshua, etc." What precisely was Moses to command Joshua? Yalkut Shimoni item 823 quoting Sifri on Pinchas claims that Moses was to command Joshua not to be taken in by the Gibeonites. Another opinion cited claims that Moses warned Joshua concerning possible strife amongst the people. There is no hint in the text of this and unless it is based on tradition we do not have to accept this explanation. I believe that the plain meaning of the verse may be understood in light of Samuel I 13,14: ויצוהו ה׳ לנגיד על עמו, "the Lord appointed him as ruler over His people." The word means "he appointed." Please refer to what I have written on Exodus 6,13 ויצום אל בני ישראל. Moses simply told Joshua to exert authority over Israel already while he was still alive. He personally would support him in this before the eyes of the whole nation.

ונשב בגיא, "we abode in the valley, etc." What did Moses want to tell us with this verse? How is it connected to either the previous verse or to the one following? Rashi, quoting Sifri, says that Moses reminded the people that they had become attached to the idol Baal Pe-or and that he exhorted them that all would be forgiven provided they would from now on hearken to G'd's statutes as per 4,1. If we accept this, we still have not explained the word ונשב as the verse only wishes to remind us of the sin of בעל פעור. Even the words מול בית פעור, opposite the temple of the פעור does not appear to make sense. If Moses referred to what had happpened there he should have used the language used by the Torah in Numbers 25,3 ויצמד ישראל לבעל פעור.

I believe that what Moses meant was that with this verse he concluded the subject with which he had commenced when he said: "I pleaded with G'd" in 3,23. He concluded by saying that his prayer did not help, that instead of both he and the people crossing the Jordan at once, they remained encamped opposite the temple of Pe-or. The expression ישב always means a stay of indeterminate length [the author says: עד עולם, i.e. forever. I do not know the source for this although the Talmud in Megillah 21 states that the word means "a delay." The proof offered there is based on Deut. 1,46 which was certainly not "forever" but for a period of 19 years according to most commentators. Ed.] The reason Moses described the location as being "in the valley" is that the land of Israel is situated at a higher level than all other countries, as we know from Numbers 13,17 "ascend here from the South." Moses added that the place was opposite the temple of Pe-or as he hinted at the place where he would be buried (Pirke de Rabbi Eliezer chapter 45). We are told there that when this idol and accuser of Israel looks at Moses' grave he is scared to raise his voice against Israel (as Moses had fought him successfully on numerous occasions).